) Let VC Rn be a subspace. Let F: V→V and G: V→V be invertible linear transformations. Denote by F-¹: V → V and G-¹: V → V the inverses of F and G respectively. Is the map H : V → V defined by H(v) := F(G(F−¹(G¯¹(v)))), for v € V, a linear transformation? Justify your answer.

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