Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about long-term asset impairment? A. Under U.S. GAAP, an asset that has been written down because of impairment can be written back up if it increases in value in the future. B. An asset is impaired if the net book value is less than the expected future cash flows. C. If an asset is impaired, the expected future cash flows will exceed the fair value of the asset. D. If an asset is impaired, the impairment loss is the difference between the net book value and the fair value.
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Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about long-term asset impairment?
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- Which of the following situations indicates that an asset is impaired?a. The net book value of the asset is less than the asset’s estimated future cash flows.b. The net book value of the asset is more than the asset’s estimated future cash flows.c. The fair market value of the asset is less than the asset’s net book value.d. The fair market value of the asset is more than the asset’s net book value.When an intangible asset has a finite life, amortization should be taken over what period of time? The shorter of the asset’s useful life or its legal life. The longer of the asset’s useful life or its legal life. According to U.S. GAAP, all costs should be expensed. No amortization should be taken on intangible assets.What is an impairment loss? A ) The amount by which the carrying amount of an asset exceeds the book value B ) The amount by which the carrying amount of an asset exceeds the recoverable amount C ) The difference between the fair value of an asset and the net realisable value of the asset D ) The amount by which the market value of an asset exceeds the net present value
- Which of the following refers to the similarity between the U.S. GAAP and IFRS regarding accounting for Long-Lived Assets? Depreciation is based on the fair value of assets. An impairment loss occurs if the carrying value exceeds the recoverable amount, defined as the higher of the asset’s fair value (less costs to sell) and its value in use, which is the discounted net cash flows. For the purposes of determination which expenses may be capitalized, Research and Development expenditures are treated differently. Intangible assets are acquired at amortized cost.Once an asset has been determined to be impaired, the amount of impairment is measured as: The asset's cost minus the fair value The asset's future cash inflows minus the book value The asset's book value minus the fair value The asset's cost minus the book valueA loss on impairment on a limited life intangible asset is the difference between the asset’s Select one: carrying value and its undiscounted expected future net cash flows. fair value and its net realizable value. fair value and its discounted expected future net cash flows. carrying value and its fair value.
- Which of the following is not a difference between U.S. GAAP and IFRS treatment of impaired assets? Multiple Choice The use of discounted cash flow. Due to differences, U.S. GAAP may trigger an impairment loss that would not be triggered by IFRS. The right to reverse prior impairment losses when there is a change in the estimates used to measure the loss. In determining the valuation, costs to sell are deducted from fair value.What are some of the reasons for the impairment of intangible assets such as Goodwill? What are some justifications for treating the write-down as a permanent decline in value of the asset(s)? What are some justifications for considering that there has been a permanent increase in the value of the asset(s)? A difference between the book value and the fair value often exists. What role do technology advances and obsolescence have in deciding that assets have been impaired? Should both decrease and increases in the asset(s) value be reported in the financial statements? Why or why not?Which of the following statements about the recoverable amount used in the IFRS impairment test of a long-lived asset is false? Group of answer choices The recoverable amount is the lesser of the fair value of the asset less costs to sell or the asset's value in use. If an asset's recoverable amount is higher than the carrying amount, no impairment loss will be reported. After recognizing an impairment of an asset, the firm carries the asset at its recoverable amount. The recoverable amount may be calculated as the discounted value of expected future cash flows from the asset.
- Impairment of an intangible asset occurs when the book value of an asset is less than the fair value. True O FalseIf a company purchases a limited-life intangible asset, they _____________ amortize the asset and they should test the asset for impairment using_______________ a.) should; the recoverability test and then the fair value test. b.) should not; the fair value test only. c.) should; the fair value test only. d.) should not; the recoverability test and then the fair value test.What is the nature of the recoverability test for indefinite-life intangible assets? Group of answer choices There is no recoverability test for indefinite-life intangible assets. Is the carrying value of the asset greater than the sum of future discounted cash flows generated by the asset? Is the carrying value of the asset greater than the fair value of the asset? Is the carrying value of the asset greater than the sum of undiscounted future cash flows generated by the asset?